Sunday 20 July 2008

NEW FINAL

Assessment System







Skip to Time Left | Skip to Navigation | Skip to Assessment Items





Take Assessment - EWAN Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)

Time Remaining:



Showing 2 of 4
Next>

Page: GO


16
Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)

exchange information about the status of virtual circuits

xxx map DLCIs to network addresses

xxx provide flow control

provide error notification

provide congestion notification

xxx send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC



17
Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)

xxx It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.

xxx It defines a process for managing security violations.

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.

It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.

xxx It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.



18
An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.

RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.



19



Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.

The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.

The RIPng network command is not configured.

The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.



20
Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)

Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.

xxx One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

xxx There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.

xxx Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.

The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.



21



Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?
From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.
From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.
From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.
xxx From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.



22
What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?

All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.

The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.

All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.

xxx Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.



23
A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.

Which statement applies to this situation?

Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.

xxx Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.

It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.



24
A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.

Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.

xxx The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.

All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.



25



Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?

application

transport

network

data link

xxx physical



26
What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?

xxx show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.

show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.



27
What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

use the copy tftp: flash: command

boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually

telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password

xxx boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes



28
Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

Wi-Fi

xxx WiMAX

satellite

Metro Ethernet



29
Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.

xxxThe wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.

A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.

A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.



30
A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

xxx Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.



Showing 2 of 4
Next>

Page: GO










All content copyright 1992-2008 Cisco Systems, Inc. Privacy Statement and Trademarks





Assessment System







Skip to Time Left | Skip to Navigation | Skip to Assessment Items





Take Assessment - EWAN Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)

Time Remaining:



Showing 1 of 4
Next>

Page: GO


1


Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.

xxx LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.

The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.



2


Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
xxx RIP authentication



3



Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

The username and password are not configured correctly.

The authentication method is not configured correctly.

The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

The vtys are not configured correctly.



4
What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

xxx A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

A modem terminates a digital local loop.

A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

xxx A modem terminates an analog local loop.

xxx A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

A router is commonly considered a DCE device.



5
Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)

Once a good password is created, do not change it.

Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.

Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.

xxx Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.

xxx Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.

xxx Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.



6
Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)

Security options are build into IPv6.

IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.

IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.

There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.

When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.



7



Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?

improper LMI type

interface reset

xxx PPP negotiation failure

unplugged cable



8



Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.

The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.

xxx The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.

Port address translation is in effect.



9
At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

xxx demarcation point

local loop

cloud



10



Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

xxx It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.

It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.

It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.



11
What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)

checksum

digital certificates

xxx encapsulation

xxx encryption

hashing



12



Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface fa0/0/0, inbound

interface fa0/0/0, outbound

interface fa0/0/1, inbound

xxx interface fa0/0/1, outbound



13



Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2

xxx HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2



14
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.



15
A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)

The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.

The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.

xxx The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.

xxx A table of static mappings can be searched.

The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.



Showing 1 of 4
Next>

Page: GO










All content copyright 1992-2008 Cisco Systems, Inc. Privacy Statement and Trademarks


Assessment System







Skip to Time Left | Skip to Navigation | Skip to Assessment Items





Take Assessment - EWAN Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)

Time Remaining:



Showing 3 of 4
Next>

Page: GO


31
Which statement about a VPN is true?

VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.

DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.

VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.

Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.



32
A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?

lower cost

lower latency and jitter

variable bandwidth capacity

xxx fewer physical router interfaces



33



Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

xxx The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.

This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.

xxx There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.

The physical connection between the two routers has failed.

The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.



34
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

xxx Configure dynamic NAT with overload.



35



Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

SSH is unable to pass through NAT.

xxx There are incorrect access control list entries.

The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.

The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.



36



Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

The clock rate must be 56000.

xxx The usernames are misconfigured.

The IP addresses are on different subnets.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.



37



Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.

xxx The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.

The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.



38



Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)

xxx This network is experiencing congestion.

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.

Data is not flowing in this network.

xxx The network is discarding eligible packets.

The DLCI is globally significant.



39
Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

xxx CHAP

xxx Stacker

IPCP

CDPCP

xxx Multilink



40



Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?

xxx Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2

Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2



41
Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

PPP with PAP

xxx PPP with CHAP

HDLC with PAP

HDLC with CHAP



42
What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?

xxx defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network



43



Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?

The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.

xxx The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.

The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.

The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.



44



Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?

MAC address of the Orlando router

MAC address of the DC router

192.168.1.25

192.168.1.26

xxx DLCI 100

DLCI 200



45



Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?

The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.

xxx The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.

The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.

The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.



Showing 3 of 4
Next>

Page: GO










All content copyright 1992-2008 Cisco Systems, Inc. Privacy Statement and Trademarks





Assessment System







Skip to Time Left | Skip to Navigation | Skip to Assessment Items





Take Assessment - EWAN Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)

Time Remaining:



Showing 4 of 4
Next>

Page: GO


46
What is a major characteristic of a worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs

tricks users into running the infected software

a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event

xxx exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network



47



Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?

10.1.1.2:1234

172.30.20.1:1234

172.30.20.1:3333

xxx 192.168.1.2:80



48
An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

xxx application layer



49
When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)

when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

xxx when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP

when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

xxx when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used



50



Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.

xxx Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .



51
A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?

Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.

Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.

Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.

xxx Company A is closer to the service provider.



52
A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

xxx Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.

Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.

Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.

Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.



53



Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6

NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address

a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2

static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses



Showing 4 of 4
Next>

Page: GO








MODULES EWAN

1
At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

**Physical Layer

**Data Link Layer

Network Layer

Transport Layer

Presentation Layer

Application Layer



2
Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

**ATM switches

**core routers

CSU/DSU

Ethernet switches

**Frame Relay switches

repeaters



3
Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?

core router

**access server

Frame Relay switch

ATM switch



4
Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

**metro Ethernet

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)

Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)



5
Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)

**CIR

**DLCI

DSLAM

**PVC

SPID

53-byte cells



6
Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

**ATM

ISDN

Frame Relay

metro Ethernet



7
What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

**low cost

**availability

traffic encryption

available bandwidth

support for voice and video



8
What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

DLCI

**circuit switching

packet switching

**data bearer channels

switched virtual circuits

**time-division multiplexing



9
What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

smaller cells

**number of subscribers

committed information rate

distance from the central office of the provider



10
What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

PVCs

DLCIs

**tunnels

virtual circuits

dedicated Layer 2 links



11
A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

ATM

ISDN

**analog dialup

T1 Leased Line



12
For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?

**CSU/DSU

Frame Relay switch

ISDN switch

modem

PBX switch



13
Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

DLCI

DTE

**DCE

BRI

PRI



14
Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

circuit-switched

dedicated switched lines

frame-switched

**packet-switched



15
A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

X.25

DSL

**ATM

ISDN BRI

ISDN PRI




16
Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

**modem

router

**CSU/DSU

ISDN switch

Ethernet switch



17
Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices.

Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.

Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.

The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policy-based connectivity.

**The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.



18
Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.

**The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."

The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.

Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.



19
Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.

A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.

**A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.

All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use.



20
Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.

It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.

A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.

**Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.



21
Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.

**Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.

ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packet-switched rather than circuit-switched technology.



22
What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are.

**Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.

Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.

Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.











1
Which serial communications DTE/DCE interface standard is used to provide high-speed connectivity of up to 52 Mbps between LANs and is found on many high-end Cisco routers?

EIA/TIA 232 (RS-232)

EIA/TIA 422 (RS-422)

EIA/TIA 423 (RS-423)

**EIA/TIA-612/613 (HSSI)

ITU V.35



2



Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding the output shown? (Choose two.)

The router has agreed on IP parameters.

The router has negotiated LCP successfully.

**The router is negotiating IP compression options.

The router is requesting an IP address from its peer.

The router has accepted IP but not the suggested IP options.



3



Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about PPP operation?

Layer 2 is down.

LCP, IPCP, and CDPCP negotiations are in progress.

Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

**Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.



4
Which three statements correctly describe PPP authentication? (Choose three.)

**PAP sends passwords in clear text.

PAP uses a 3-way handshake to establish a link.

PAP provides protection from repeated trial-and-error attacks.

CHAP uses a 2-way handshake to establish a link.

**CHAP uses a challenge/response that is based on the MD5 hash algorithm.

**CHAP uses repeated challenges for verification.



5
What function do Network Control Protocols provide for a PPP connection?

to supply error detection

to establish and terminate data links

to provide authentication capabilities to PPP

to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link

**to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link



6
Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)

TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.

**Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.

**Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.

TDM methods vary depending on the Layer 2 protocol that is used.

It allows information from multiple channels to be allocated bandwidth on multiple wires.



7



Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)

**The remote CSU or DSU has failed.

The router is not sensing a CD signal.

**A timing problem has occurred on the cable.

The line is not physically connected to the CSU/DSU.

The router configuration contains the shutdown interface configuration command.



8
Which PPP configuration option can be used to establish load balancing over the interfaces of a router?

callback

**multilink

compression

error detection



9
What advantage does PPP have over HDLC for serial communications?

It can communicate more efficiently with other Cisco devices

It is less complex to configure

It has less Layer 2 overhead

**It supports authentication



10
Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?

MD5

CHAP

**PAP

NCP



11
Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)

**It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.

It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP.

It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link establishment parameters.

**It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.

**It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.

It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.



12



Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?

NCP has successfully negotiated.

The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.

**One router has suggested PAP authentication, and the other has accepted authentication but suggested CHAP authentication.

One router can only use PAP authentication while the other router can only use CHAP, so the connection has been rejected.



13
Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?

Parallel connections do not support error checking.

Parallel connections are subject to excessive attenuation.

**Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.

Parallel connections transmit over only two wires and therefore transmit data more slowly.



14



Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?

All username and password information that is sent will be encrypted.

All authentication on the serial link will be accomplished using a three-way handshake.

The Predictor algorithm will be used to compress all packets that are sent and received on the serial link.

**The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.



15
What does the demarcation point represent in data communication physical circuits?

DTE/DCE interface on the device connecting to the Internet

location of the firewall or router

**physical point at which the public network ends and the private customer network begins

tag assigned to the physical block where a cross-connect occurs




16



Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is not able to communicate with a neighbor router that is directly connected to serial 0/0/0. What is the reason for this?

Interface Serial0/0/0 resets very frequently.

PPP LQM has shutdown the serial interface.

The serial interface has no input or output queues available.

The serial interface is not configured for a Layer 2 protocol.

**The interface has been administratively shutdown with the shutdown command.



17



Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show interface Serial0/0 output, how many NCP sessions have been established?

one

**two

three

four



18
Which three statements are correct about HDLC encapsulation? (Choose three.)

HDLC does not support CDP.

HDLC and PPP are compatible.

HDLC supports PAP and CHAP authentication.

**HDLC implementation in Cisco routers is proprietary.

**HDLC is the default serial interface encapsulation on Cisco routers.

**HDLC uses frame delimiters to mark the beginnings and ends of frames.



19
Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)

**link quality

**authentication

dynamic flow control

compression and network layer address for IP

connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods



20



Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?

LCP is in the process of negotiating a link.

LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication to complete.

LCP negotiation has been successful, but NCP negotiation is in progress.

**Data is able to flow across this link.



21



Refer to the exhibit. Router R1, the DCE device, has just been configured for PPP encapsulation with authentication. What series of commands will allow another router, the DTE device, to communicate over its serial 0/0/0 interface to router R1?

**Router(config)# hostname R3
R3(config)# username R1 password Cisco
R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0
R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap

Router(config)# hostname R3
R3(config)# username R3 password Cisco
R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0
R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap

Router (config)# username Router password Cisco
Router (config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
Router (config-if)# clockrate 64000
Router (config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Router (config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router config-if)# ppp authentication chap

Router (config)# username R1 password Cisco
Router config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
Router (config-if)# clockrate 64000
Router config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Router (config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router (config-if)# ppp authentication chap








Assessment System




1



Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

**R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast



2



Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp

**R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301



3



Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?

It is currently not transmitting data.

It is in the process of establishing the PVC.

It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.

**It is experiencing congestion.



4



Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.

**Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.

Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.

Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.



5



Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.

**The local DLCI number is 401.

**Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.

This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.

Multicast is not enabled on this connection.



6
What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network

**locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit

logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch

logical address used to identify the DCE



7
Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

ARP

RARP

Proxy ARP

**Inverse ARP

**LMI status messages

ICMP



8



Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.

The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.

**The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.

**The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.

The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.



9



Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?

It helps to conserve IP addresses.

It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.

**It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.

It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.



10
What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

**Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.

It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.

FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.

**The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.



11
Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.

Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.

**Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional hardware for leased service.



12



Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.

The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.

The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

**The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.



13



Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.

**The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.

DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1

**Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.

Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.



14



Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?

**The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.

The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.

The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.

The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.



15
What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

ISDN circuit

limited access circuit

switched parallel circuit

**virtual circuit




16
What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?

**To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword.

Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay nodes.

Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.

To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.



17
Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)

puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR

**drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set

reduces the number of frames it sends over the link

re-negotiates flow control with the connected device

**sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link

**sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link



18



Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?

**110

115

220

225



19



Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?

Split horizon must be disabled.

The LMI type must be specified.

Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.

**The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.



20
Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point subinterfaces will consume.

**Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.

Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.



21



Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

one multipoint subinterface

**two point-to-point subinterfaces

with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses

one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface



22



Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?

LMI updates are not being received properly.

**The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.

Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.









1
Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
**Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
**Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

2
Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
**A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
**Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3
Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
reconnaissance
access
**DoS
worm
virus
Trojan horse

4
Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?
The password is sent in plain text.
A Telnet session is established with R1.
**The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

5
Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
**Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
**Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

6
What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule antivirus scans.
Schedule antispyware scans .
**Schedule training for all users.
Schedule operating systems updates.

7
Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
describe how the firewall must be configured
**document the resources to be protected
**identify the security objectives of the organization
identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8
What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
**It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
**It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It is developed by end users.
It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
**It defines how to handle security incidents.
It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

9
Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
securing
**monitoring
testing
improvement
reconnaissance

10
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
****The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

11
What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
****It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
****It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

12
The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
****The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
****The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
****The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
****The TFTP server software has not been started.
There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14
Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
****Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
****Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

15
Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
****Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

16
An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
DoS
DDoS
****virus
access
reconnaissance

17
Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
****SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18
Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
****By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
****The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

19
The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
****ROM monitor
boot ROM
Cisco IOS
****direct connection through the console port
network connection through the Ethernet port
network connection through the serial port

20
Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
****SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

21
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?
****to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
to enable SSH encryption of traffic
to create an IPsec tunnel

22
Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
****The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

1
Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
packet size
**protocol suite
**source address
**destination address
source router interface
destination router interface

2



Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
**The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

3
How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
by destination UDP port
by protocol type
**by source IP address
by source UDP port
by destination IP address

4
By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
blocked in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
**permitted in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

5
Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the source
**close to the destination
on an Ethernet port
on a serial port

6
Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
**Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
**Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

7



Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

8
Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
**The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
**The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

9



Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
**Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

10
Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
**The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
The network administrator receives an error.
Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

11
Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
Only named ACLs allow comments.
**Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
**Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12
Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
**extended ACL
reflexive ACL
console logging
**authentication
**Telnet connectivity
user account with a privilege level of 15

13



Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
**It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14
A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?
dynamic
port-based
**reflexive
time-based

15
Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
**FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
All traffic is implicitly denied.
FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
**Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.


16
Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
**the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

17
Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
**In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

18



Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
**It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

19



Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
**Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

20
Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
**An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
**A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
**Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

21
A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
**172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

22



Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
ISP Fa0/0 outbound
R2 S0/0/1 inbound
**R3 Fa0/0 inbound
R3 S0/0/1 outbound

23
Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
**The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
**A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24
Which statement about standard ACLs is true?
Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
**They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

25
The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
**The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
The access list statements are misconfigured.
All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

26



Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
**The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.


1



Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
***All locations can support VPN connectivity.

2
Which statement describes cable?
*****Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

3



Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a GRE tunnel
a site-to-site VPN
******a remote-access VPN
the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

4
Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
****covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
****connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

5
Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
*****digital certificates
ESP
hashing algorithms
****smart cards
WPA

6
After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
****The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment.
Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.

7



Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
****The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
****The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
****The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

8
While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
****Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
Data is flowing downstream.
Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

9
A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
a WiMAX tower
a one-way multicast satellite
****a WiMAX receiver
an access point connected to the company WLAN

10
Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
ATM
CHAP
****IPsec
IPX
****MPLS
PPTP

11
Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
****AES
****DES
AH
hash
MPLS
****RSA

12
Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
****channel widths
access method
maximum data rate
****modulation techniques
compression techniques

13
Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
users are on a shared medium
uses RF signal transmission
****local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
****user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

14
Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
use higher RF frequencies
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

15
A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
cable
****DSL
ISDN
POTS

16
Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
Diffie-Hellman
digital certificate
****pre-shared key
RSA signature

17
What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
****AH
L2TP
****ESP
GRE
PPTP

18
Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
****encryption
****encapsulation
hashing
passwords

19
What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
accounting
****authentication
****authorization
data availability
****data confidentiality
data integrity


Assessment System


1



Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
****Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.
****Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.
External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.

2



Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.
It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.
****It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

3



Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
10.1.1.2
192.168.0.100
****209.165.20.25
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

4



Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.
The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.
****A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.

5
How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
32
48
64
****128

6



Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
****defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

7
What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
****PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

8



Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
****The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.

9
After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
****Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.

10



Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
10.1.1.1
****172.30.20.2
192.168.1.2
255.255.255.255

11
What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
****It saves public IP addresses.
****It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
It increases routing performance.
It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.

12



Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
****0
1
2
3
4

13



Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
ip nat pool statement
access-list statement
ip nat inside is on the wrong interface
interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address

14



Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
1
6
7
****8
9

15



Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
****179.9.8.98
****179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112



16
A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.
****Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.
Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.

17
Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
8
16
80
****128

18
What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
NAT overload
****static NAT
dynamic NAT
PAT

19



Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
****The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

20
A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.
Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.
****Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

21



Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
dynamic NAT
NAT with overloading
****open port 20
****open port 21
open port 23
****NAT with port forwarding


Assessment System


1
Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
****Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
****The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper layers.

2
A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
****baselining tool
knowledge base
protocol analyzer
cable tester

3
Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
IP addressing allocation on the network
requirements about the service provider setup
****requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
****expected performance under normal operating conditions

4
What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect encapsulation
incorrect STP configuration
incorrect ARP mapping
****incorrect clock rate

5
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
physical
data link
network
****application

6
Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
****A carrier detect signal is present.
****Keepalives are being received successfully.
Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
The reliability of this link is very low.
****The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
****Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
****Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

8
Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
All layers
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
****Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
Layer 6 and Layer 7

9
Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
****Determine fault.
Get to know the user to build trust.
****Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
****Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

10
A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
cable analyzer
****network analyzer
protocol analyzer
knowledge base

11
Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
physical
****data link
network
transport

12
What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
****192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

13
Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
application
transport
network
****data link
physical

14
Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
cable types
****connector types
****interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
operating system versions

15
Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
****The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
****The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

16
Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
****The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the application servers in the data center.
The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

17
A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
****transport layer
****application layer

18
When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
narrowing the scope
gathering symptoms from suspect devices
analyzing existing symptoms
****determining ownership

19
Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
****bottom up
top down
divide and conquer
middle out

20
Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
physical
****data link
network
transport